That could be the case although I would have to do more research into the matter. I do believe, as others have posted, that it’s more of a commentary on the characters in the play. For instance, The Wives of Windsor was written after Hamlet but before Othello and Macbeth and many others that use verse.
ralphnaderraider
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I am wondering what the significance is between dialogue written in verse verses that written in prose. Often, dialogue is written in verse with only a little bit in prose. I’m reading Merry Wives of Windsor and the majority of the play is written in prose.
Is there a reason for the change in style?